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The Rabbi mentioned that if a Jew purchases a slave, the slave becomes fully Jewish.
One general question is that this whole section is about the evil of slavery and how God rescued the Jews from being slaves for many years in Egypt. I am aware of the concept of a slave in Judaism (that he can live a luxurious life - the food that you eat, the slave also has to eat that food. The bed you sleep in, the slave also has to sleep in that type of bed). All of the luxuries that you have in your life, the slave also has to be given those luxuries as well.
But the deeper question is that the slave does not have freedom. That is the bottom line. Freedom is the desired state of all beings, and for humans not to be subjected to slavery. Even though the slave in the Jewish home will be given all luxuries, he is still a slave. How do the Rabbis explain this. And perhaps back then, having slaves was very common. But the Torah is for all time, not just back then. Can you please provide an explanation
Abraham 70 years old There are actually (at least) two opinions. 70 or 75. The verse does not give a specific date. It is implied. It is discussed in the commentaries and in the Oral Law.
The Greek alternation to 12:40
I believe that you are correct.
I should have said:
"And the habitation of the children of Israel, when they dwelled in the land of Egypt and the land of Canaan was 430 years."
Thank you
The Greek alternation to 12:40
Dear Rabbi Gordon,
You mention the 70 chachamim who translated the Tanakh into Greek-- in fact, the text of the Greek Septuagint is not changed to say 210 years, as seems to be implied by Rashi... instead, it says the following:
"And the habitation of the children of Israel, when they dwelled in the land of Egypt and the land of Canaan was 430 years."
So this is very interesting.. the Greek text solves the chronology problem by accurately inserting that these 430 years includes the time previously spent in Canaan. Though it seems strange that the text mentions Egypt first and Canaan second. ἐν γῇ Αἰγύπτῳ καὶ ἐν γῇ Χανααν
The Samaritan version of the Torah actually says בארץ כנען ובארץ מצרים. I do not know if the chachamim based their insertion on the Samaritan version or if they independently made the change.
How Did you come up with abraham being 70 tears old when he was told that he would have a child. I get that it make 430 years make sence but where can you prove that age in the text?
Rashi says in 12:40:
Altogether, from the time that Isaac was born, until now, were 400 years. From the time that Abraham had seed [i.e., had a child, the prophecy] “that your seed will be strangers” (Gen. 15:13) was fulfilled; and there were another 30 years from the decree “between the parts” (Gen 15:10) until Isaac was born.
Source: [from Mechilta, Meg. 9a]
Very nice Thank you for detail laws, background, insights in this limited time. I am very much enjoyed.
Should steps then be taken to prevent the Ger Toshav from eating a Paschal sacrifice in his own home because it seemed good to him from his study of Torah?