How did Naomi's sons marry non-Jewish Moabite women?

Question:

How was it that Naomi's two sons married non-Jewish Moabite women? From what I've read, it seems that Ruth only converted to Judaism after her husband died.

Answer:

The biblical commentaries discuss the question that you ask, and they suggest different answers. Some are of the opinion that Ruth and her Moabite sister-in-law Orpah did not convert before marrying Naomi's two sons. According to this interpretation, these two men were guilty of intermarrying.

The Zohar Chadash maintains that Ruth and Orpah did convert before marrying. However, if this is the case, why did Naomi try to convince them both to return to their idolatrous families after the deaths of their husbands?

A conversion to Judaism is dependant on the sincerity of the one converting. During their husbands' lifetime, it was uncertain whether they observed Judaism out of a sincere desire to be part of the Jewish nation, or only to please their husbands. Naomi urged them to remain in Moab to test their sincerity. Orpah indeed remained, while Ruth, who always truly desired to be a Jew, insisted on traveling along to the land of Israel with her mother-in-law to live a Jewish life. Ruth abandoned the luxuries she had as a Moabite princess, readily prepared to become a pauper, out of a sincere love for G‑d.

And for this she was richly rewarded...

Click here to read more about Ruth.

All the best,

Rochel Chein for Chabad.org

By Rochel Chein

Mrs. Rochel Chein is a member of the chabad.org Ask the Rabbi team.

All names of persons and locations or other identifying features referenced in these questions have been omitted or changed to preserve the anonymity of the questioners.

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12 Comments

Shoshana GA August 20, 2017

Ruth was not an ethnic Moabite, she was an Israelite. For over 200 years Ruben, Gad and half of Manasseh occupied all the territory north of the Arnon to MT Hermon. Part of that territory was once Moab’s but the Amorites under King Sihon took it. Moab tried to take it back and for about 18 years succeeded, at least in that area. Israel fought back and it’s during this time that Naomi’s sons died. Boaz, a righteous Jew, followed Torah steps of redemption. As per the Deu 23:3 prohibition, Boaz could not have redeemed Ruth had she been a true Moabite. One can be an American, a Cuban, a Frenchman, etc and still be a Jew. Ruth was a Moabite Israelite, which like many had done in Israel, may have worshiped the local deities but after her husband died chose to do teshuva returning to Judah’s territory with Naomi. Reply

Stephen Glasse UK January 16, 2023

in response to Shoshana:

Deuteronomy 23:3 'moabite' is hebrew masculine therefore it doesn't prohibit Ruth.
Why does the text of Ruth 1:4 describe Ruth as Moabite?
What generation was Ruth from Moab (Genesis 19:37)? because 1 Chronicles puts Boaz as the 11th(?) from Abraham so it's entirely possible that Ruth was an extra descendant from Moab. Reply

Mr Barrington Hunte March 15, 2023

in response to Stephen Glasse:

What does the Hebrew word for moabite women mean. Is a daughter of moab different ?
Where is the country of moab which Elemelech and family went on a map ?
Who lived there during the judges rule ?
Line by line precept on precept the scriptures via the holy spirit answers all these questions in your bible and supplies amazing confirmation of the truth which is vastly different from main stream understanding... but why ...??????? Reply

Shoshana GA August 23, 2023

in response to Stephen Glasse:

Firstly, isn't it true that in Hebrew (as well as in other languages like Spanish) the masculine form is to be used when even one male is included in the group?
As to Ruth described as a Moabite... does citizenship or nationality affect ethnicity or race?

Devarim 23:3 is clear that not even after 10 generations may Israel ever mix with Moabites and Ammonites. Forever. This was different with Egyptians and Edomites but not with Canaanites, When Nehemiah read this portion of Torah to the people (Nehemiah 13:1-3), did he not enforce it by separating Israel from all the Moabite and Ammonite including the women, vs 23-26? Reply

Stephen Glasse UK March 15, 2023

in response to Mr Barrington Hunte:

Shoshana asserts that Deut 23:3 prohibits Ruth if a moabite from marrying Boaz and entering the assembly of the LORD. However, moabite in Deut 23:3 is masculine AND it only excludes until the 11th generation. So, my points are (1) maybe Ruth as a moabite could enter because she was of the 12th or more generation (2) Deut 23:3 only excludes male moabites anyway.

It seems unlikely that Ruth was a Hebrew living in Moab since the text calls her a Moabite (Ruth 1:4) and the whole book emphasises the grace shown to her as a foreigner Reply

Shoshana GA April 18, 2023

in response to Stephen Glasse:

In Spanish and other languages when making reference a group of people that includes both male and female the masculine forms are used.
It seems from reading Ezra 9, and Nehemiah 13, both genders are included in the prohibition found in Deuteronomy 23:3.

Are American Jews not called “Americans”, French Jews “French”, etc?
How is that any different than calling a citizen of Moab a “Moabite” irrespective of religion or ethnicity?
If Ruth was truly a foreigner when did she convert? In the Septuagint it reads “your people my people”. She is asserting to Naomi she is also Israelite. Reply

Ken June 3, 2023

in response to Shoshana:

Naomi is never referred to as a Moabite even though she has been in Moab for years. Orpah and Ruth are both referred to as Moabite and not Israelites. Also Naomi tells them to go back to their gods an Israelite wouldn't have other gods
Ruth when she says your people will be my people and your God will be my God is declaring her new citizenship, her new faith and renouncing her gods and her old citizenship. That's when she converted.
So in this one might say regardless of 23:3 she renounced being a Moabite, or how many generations from Moab... questions certainly might be there but God's never wrong so it's us that lack and not what transpired. Reply

Shoshana GA August 23, 2023

in response to Ken :

Naomi was not a Moabite but a Judahite. Naomi and her family traveled from Bethlehem Ephrata to the country of Moab, Ruth 1:1-2. Ruth and Orpha however, are called Moabites. During Judges Israel had all the former Moabite territory north of the River Arnon. Would there have been Israelites born and raised in the plains or country of Moab during that time? Other than the 18 years King Eglon regained the territory for Moab (Judges 3:14), Israel still had that land for 80 years, Judges 3:30. All descendants from Israel born and raised there could have been called Moabites. As stated in Judges 11:26, Israel had possession of this land for a total of 300 years.

As to Ruth’s declaration… the “will be” is absent from older versions like the LXX. In later version it appears in parentheses, etc. indicating it was added later. Ruth in effect appears to have done teshuvah telling Naomi “Your people are my people, your Elohim my Elohim.” Reply

Anonymous UK December 4, 2013

Interracial marriage What is the Jewish current view on interracial marriage. Moses and Rurh were good examples and great people in the bible. Reply

Anonymous oto August 26, 2009

Ruth a Moabite Princess Ok so scholarly writings and interpretations about the actual book of Ruth declare it to be so - hmm no actual archaelogical records though, and no other biblical texts / writings in the Torah to declare it so or even circumstantially so. That is an awful difficult leap don't you think? According to the translations I have for the word Ephrathites - it means Fruitful, and it is also an ancient term for Bethlehemjudah , considering that biblically it states they were ephrathites OF bethlemhamjudah one might as easily interpret it to be a sub section of Bethlehamjudah, much like we have different neighbourhoods of a city. Reply

Menachem Posner for Chabad.org August 25, 2009

RE: Ruth a Moabite Princess ? The tradition that Ruth was from the Royal Moabite family is found in the Midrash, Talmud, Zohar, as well as many other places in rabbinic literature. Based on the teaching of Rashi, one can say that this implicit in Ruth 1:2 where we read that the Hebrew family who to whom Ruth married was called “ephrathim”—a word translated as “nobles” or “palace dwellers.” It would only make sense for the children of a noble family to marry the children of a family of similar status. Reply

ken Orlando August 25, 2009

Ruth a Moabite Princess ? Where do you read this in the Bible? Reply

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