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Was Jewishness Always Matrilineal?



Question:

Moses married the daughter of a non-Jewish priest. Though she apparently converted later on, she was not Jewish when Moses married her, although she may have followed his faith and convictions. But Moses' children were clearly Jewish.

Although it may not be palatable, I would suggest that the guidelines were different in biblical times. Men were able to continue the Jewish line without a Jewish wife.

Answer:

Moses was not the only one to marry out of the tribe. Joseph married an Egyptian woman and, according to some opinions, his brothers married Canaanites. For that matter, what made Rachel, Leah or Rebecca more Jewish than anyone else?

The answer is, nothing at all. Because there was no Jewish People at the time.

The Jewish Nation was formed at the event of Mount Sinai. Before that, they were descendants of a common father, Jacob, along with many who had come to join or married into their families. Standing at Mount Sinai, they were chosen and appointed a "kingdom of priests and a holy nation." They became a people.

In other words, at that point everyone standing there—including Zipporah, Moses' wife, including even Moses himself—all became Jewish.

Since then, if a person wants to join the Jewish People, s/he must undergo that same experience of Mount Sinai—without the fireworks. Meaning, accept the Torah and all its mitzvahs, as is required from a holy people that is meant to be a light to the nations.

Since the people there had also immersed in water (that's the traditional understanding of the instructions at Exodus 19:10), the prospective convert must also immerse in a mikvah. Since the men were circumcised beforehand, a male who wishes to convert must be circumcised. The other requirement is to bring an animal sacrifice as they did there, but without a Temple standing in Jerusalem, this will have to wait.

There are stories later in the times of the Judges and the Kings, where Jewish men took wives from other peoples. In most cases, there is nothing mentioned about their acceptance of the mitzvahs or dipping in a mikvah.

This, however, is quite understandable. The reader takes it as obvious. Something like if I would write, "And then Vicki York went to Harvard and received her doctorate in sociology." I don't need to write that Vicki wrote a thesis and defended it—the contemporary reader understands that as obvious. Similarly, it would be superfluous for the Bible to account all the details of how this woman became part of our people.

This entire confusion of maternal vs. paternal line arises out of a general misconception of Jewish identity. As I have written many times, being Jewish is not a matter of belief but of belonging. A Jew is one who belongs to a people who have a covenant with G‑d. In that sense, we are far better understood as a tribe rather than as a religion. And in tribal terms, when a man marries a woman from outside the tribe, all understand that he is bringing her in to join the tribe and so she must go through whatever rites are required to make that entry.

Hope this explains things a little further.

Rabbi Tzvi Freeman for Chabad.org


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By Tzvi Freeman   More articles...  |   RSS Listing of Newest Articles by this Author
Rabbi Tzvi Freeman heads Chabad.org's Ask The Rabbi team, and is a senior member of the Chabad.org editorial team. He is the author of a number of highly original renditions of Kabbalah and Chassidic teaching, including the universally acclaimed "Bringing Heaven Down to Earth." To order Tzvi's books click here. Rabbi Freeman is available for public speaking and workshops. Read more on his bio page.
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Reader Comments
Latest Comments:
Posted: Aug 20, 2009
RE: Anonymous
I do not want to force an answer or try to bully you into viewing something one way or another.

I want you to ask the question, 'If G-d gave us the Torah on Mt. Sinai . . what is the method by which we interpret the text?

Either there was an Oral Torah given to Moses which 'fills in the gaps' regarding interpretative methods and definitions or Judaism is a creative story that you and I can philosophize about ad infinitum.

The essence of our disagreement is

a) What is the Torah?
b) Did Moses receive a method to interpret the Torah?

If I went to go get a Pastrami sandwich at a deli and all I got was bread and pickles then it can be stated my sandwich order is incomplete.

The written Torah is like the bread and pickles. By itself it is an incomplete sandwich. No details and No pragmatic applications (e.g., kosher slaughter). The Hebrew vowels themsleves are not in the text. Based on a text only approach we cannot even read it!

How do we resolve this? What do you suggest?
Posted By Menachem Mendel, San Diego, CA

Posted: Aug 19, 2009
reply to last two posts
As I understand it, the Talmud came about because it was a writing down of the Oral Torah. Therefore, there was a standing tradition of interpreting the Torah that was oral, and not written, for the first part of Judaism's history. It was only when the temples fell, and the Israelites were threatened with extinction of their traditions, that they thought to write down the Law that interprets the 5 books of Moses.

The Karaites are most definitely patrilineal. Further, their's is not simply a text-based approach as suggested by Rabbi Freeman, since they obviously practice Judaism. When the temples fell and the Israelites dispersed various communities continued their Jewish practices in different ways. The fact that there are the Babylonian and Jerusalem Talmud's is an example of this. Different communities codified Judaism differently. The Karaites did so orally, I fail to see why this is "impotent and irrelevant."
Posted By Anonymous, NY, NY

Posted: Aug 19, 2009
re: concensus
There is no evidence that the Karaites have any roots in the pre-Talmudic era--other than their own audacious claims. Furthermore, only a small minority of them accept patrilineal descent.

At any rate, as MM in S Diego suggests, a purely text-based approach is both impotent and irrelevant. Impotent because it cannot adapt or form a continuity. Irrelevant because how are you going to convince others to accept your particular interpretation.

Building on MM's analogy to the scientific method--whether or not such a method can be defined, the methods of science in the past 500 years has allowed for a continuum of accumulated wisdom. Rabbinic Judaism does the same. Karaism--and the Reform movement--both fail in this regard.
Posted By Rabbi Tzvi Freeman



 


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