Blowing the shofar on Rosh Hashanah (the Jewish New Year) is a mitzvah (a commandment.) Women are not obligated in time-bound positive mitzvot, because of their overriding family responsibilities. However, it is certainly meritorious for a woman to hear the sounds of the shofar on Rosh Hashanah. A woman who hears the shofar being blown every year on Rosh Hashanah is considered to have taken a vow to do so, and should continue hearing it every year. There are some authorities who teach that Jewish women as a whole have accepted this commandment upon themselves.
Can a woman blow the shofar? She can certainly blow it for herself. Since her level of obligation in the mitzvah is different than that of a man, she cannot blow for a man. There are various rabbinical opinions on whether a woman can blow for other women.
This is all concerning the blowing of the shofar on Rosh Hashanah. A woman can definitely blow the shofar on other occasions during the year.
Yours truly,
Mrs. Rochel Chein
Stillwater, MN
Are women obligated?
Some opinions (by valid poskim) say that since this is a time bound mitzvah, women are not obligated. So they may blow for themselves, but not for others.
Other (perfectly valid) opinions say that women have, as a class, opted to become obligated, and therefore all women are obligated and may blow for themselves and others.
Other opinions say that each woman who opts to hear the shofar on three times that a man is obligated to hear it has now taken the obligation individually, and may blow for herself, and others with the same status.
Who is right? We each depend on how our rabbi/posek rules.
Who called Judaism an organized religion?
w. bloomfield, mi/usa
baischabad.com
Since the shofar should only be blown on Rosh Hashanah in order to fulfill the mitzvah, a woman (and a man as well) should not blow for people who are not planning on fulfilling the mitzvah at this time.
Is it not a mitzvot to blow the shofar in itself?
If we use this logic, then a woman should be able to blow the shofar if it did not interfere with other obligations and it was not for the purpose of allowing others to hear the shofar only (if they heard it a second time blown by a man it would be permissable) then this is OK?
Is the answer...there is no answer? Perhaps the person who asked did not want to partake in an outright violation of the law and it was not just for curiosity.
Boulder, USA
jewishlongmont.com
Or blow the shofar in the company of others as long as it was not for the purpose of the others to fufill the mitzvot of hearing the shofar?
Boulder, CO
jewishlongmont.com
NY, USA
Premise 1: if A then B.
Premise 2: A
Conclusion: Therefore, B
That is a valid argument form known a "modus ponens."
The fallacy here is to negate the antecedent ("A") and conclude that the consequent (B") must therefore also be negated (posing "not A" as the second premise and "not B" as the conclusion). That's invalid because it doesn't have to be true.
The same is true here. Prohibition does not follow from lack of positive obligation. IPerhaps there are other premises that yield the prohibition, but they are absent from the response provided to the initial question.
What are these other premises?
Elmhurst, IL